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"Knemon" <grouch@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:4ljomrF28peoU1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> Michael wrote:
> > Hello,
> >
> > I had to come up with an IPA transcription for the word "furor" today
> > (leaving the second syllable unstressed, without an "oh" sound), and
> > I'm a bit confused as to what it should be.
>
> The Oxford version os SAMPA for furor is /"fjU@rO;/,
> IPA (UTF-8)/'fj??r??/,
> ASCII-IPA /'fjU@rO:/
>
> Jones uses
> for BrE (ASCII-IPA) /'fjUrO:/
> IPA (UTF-8) /'fj?r??/
> for AmE (ASCII-IPA) /'fjUrO:r/ or /'fjUrR/
> IPA (UTF-8) /'fj?r??r/ or /'fj?r?/
>
>
> > After all, the "-or" is
> > clearly the alveolar approximant (upside down "r" in IPA), but what
> > about the preceding "r"? It doesn't make any sense to write "fjurr"
> > with two r's.
>
> The alveolar approximant (/?/ turned r in IPA) is just /r/ in ASCII-IPA.
> The "-or" is *not" "clearly the alveolar approximant". The first 'r'
> might be.
>
> Your mispronunciation of the second syllable (and that with multiple
> standard pronunciations to choose from)is an error. If you had not made
> that error, you would not be tempted to write "rr".
I pronounce "furor" and "fuehrer" the same, and these rhyme with "demurer"
in my dialect.
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